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"Is It Lawful?" - Matthew 19:1-12

“Is It Lawful?”

Matthew 19:1-12

Some might claim that many questions that surround marriage, divorce and remarriage are unanswered in Scripture. Not so. When it comes to the question of divorce and remarriage there is no need to speculate. This precise question came up and Jesus addressed it quite clearly. In fact, the Holy Spirit chose to give us an abundance of information to examine on the subject in four specific contexts (Matthew 5:31-32; 19:1-13; Mark 10:1-12; Luke 16:18).  

To Whom Do the Verses Apply?

This is probably the only topic in my preaching career that I have ever heard anyone raise the question “to whom do the verses apply?” On just about every other topic it is assumed that a teaching in the New Testament applies to everyone. In the context of Matthew 19:1-13, Jesus makes a number of points that tell us that these verses do apply to everyone, Christian or non-Christian, Jew or Gentile alike.

  • Jesus answers their first question about divorce from quoting the first two chapters of Genesis and then drawing a very logical conclusion (19:4-5). If God created two genders, and a man leaves father and mother and cleaves to his new wife, and as such they become one flesh, it is rather obvious that divorce is not allowed for every cause. By quoting Genesis, Jesus made the point that God’s original design for marriage has not changed, that the teaching in Genesis 2:24 is still valid, and seeing that such a command was given before the formation of the Jewish race, or Christians and non-Christians, the teaching is universal and has always been.
  • Jesus only reinforced this last point when after they wanted to go to Deuteronomy 24, He pointed out that Deuteronomy 24 was never a green light for divorce, this should have been obvious, seeing that the same covenant that contained Deuteronomy 24:1-4 also contained Malachi 2:16 in which God emphatically says, “I hate divorce”.
  • Jesus then says, “But from the beginning it has not been this way” (Matthew 19:8).  He did not say, “at the beginning it was not this way”, but rather, “from the beginning”. This means that Genesis 2:24 is still God’s will on marriage, that is, “one leaves and cleaves” and it has always been His will.

In addition, we could likewise offer the following evidence that unbelievers are under God’s marriage law as well as believers. 

  • Unbelievers can commit the sin of adultery (Leviticus 18:20,24; 1 Corinthians 6:9-10), which would only be true if they were under God’s law on marriage.
  • Unbelievers can likewise be guilty of the sins of homosexuality and fornication (1 Corinthians 6:9-10) which equally violations of God’s will on marriage (Hebrews 13:4).

Some have said that it is not fair for unbelievers to be under such a law seeing that they might be ignorant of God’s will on the matter. Yet, with some reflection this does not make much sense. Unbelievers are clearly under God’s will against murder, theft, lying and every other sin, and all these sins do have severe consequences, often far more severe than not having a right to remarry.

Finally, there is a problem when one tries to argue that the unbeliever is not accountable to God’s marriage laws. First, does this mean that God does not care what they do in this area? Can they marry, live together, divorce and remarry countless times and remain sinless in God's eyes? Passages such as Leviticus 18:24 say otherwise. Secondly, if they are under a marriage law different from Matthew 19, where is that law found in Scripture? Finally, if they are not under Matthew 19, then this would mean that they also do not have the right of the exception in verse 9, for the exception is only stated in the Gospels.

Do The Passages Apply Today?

Some have argued that Matthew 19 is not part of the gospel, but is only Old Testament teaching and thus was not valid after the death of Jesus.

  • Yet Matthew says that when Jesus started to teach He was teaching “the gospel of the kingdom” (Matthew 4:23). In the very next chapter, Jesus gives teaching on marriage, divorce and remarriage (5:31-32).
  • Jesus then said that since the baptism of John the gospel had been proclaimed (Luke 16:16).
  • Jesus taught a number of things that clearly were true before the Law of Moses (Matthew 19:8), and yet would also be true after its removal (Matthew 18:15-17).
  • If these passages apply to no one after the cross, then no one has the right to put away their mate for the cause of sexual unfaithfulness (Matthew 5:32), for that clause is only given in the Gospels.

Why Only One Cause?

Some have a problem with Jesus giving only one cause, the cause of sexual unfaithfulness (Matthew 19:9). What about things like physical abuse, and drug addiction?

  • Women in the First Century were married to abusive men and addicts as well as in any other age, yet Jesus only gave one cause for divorce with the right of remarriage. Does this mean such a woman is expected to just put up with such behavior? Of course not. Those who break the law need to be arrested, confronted by the men of the congregation and held accountable for their actions. The police are there to remove such a man from the household and protect the woman and her children. There are many resources to deal with such evil men. Thus, a woman is not prevented from protecting herself and her children, in fact she has an obligation to do so.

“Why did Moses command to give her a certificate and divorce her?” (19:7)

Moses did not command divorce. A reading of Deuteronomy 24:1-4 will find that Moses never “commanded” a man to put this woman away or give her a certificate. All Moses “commanded” was that the man could not remarry the woman, even if the second husband died (24:4), or if the second husband divorced her. Moses equally stated something that should have caught the eye of all those reading these verses. The divorced wife was said to be "defiled" by such a process and the husband who had put her away could never have her again – even if her second husband died.

What about the Unfaithful Mate – Can They Remarry?

No Scripture ever gives them the adulterer the right to remarry, even though the faithful spouse is allowed (Matthew 19:9). The right of remarriage is, however, given to widows and widowers (1 Corinthians 7:39).

How Long Does The Adultery in Matthew 19:9 Last?

  • The word “adultery” is in the present tense indicating continuing action. “She is committing adultery” (Mark 10:12).
  • The adultery in the verse follows a marriage, indicating that the new marriage is what causes the adultery, because the divorce in 19:9 did not dissolve the former marriage in God’s sight. This same principle is found in Romans 7:3 and 1 Corinthians 7:10-11.
  • Like every other sin, the sin can only be forgiven when the sin is stopped, that is, when the sinful relationship is ceased:  “It is not lawful for you to have her” (Matthew 14:4; Mark 6:17-18).

Jesus Answers Clearly

  • Can one divorce for any cause and retain the right of remarriage? No.
  • When can I divorce and have the right to remarry?  If my spouse is unfaithful:  Matthew 19:9
  • What happens if I divorce a faithful mate and remarry? Adultery (19:9)
  • To whom does this teaching apply? “Whoever” (19:9)
  • What if I divorce my faithful mate and they remarry? (Matthew 5:32 “makes her commit adultery”).
  • What about the person who marries her? “Whoever marries a divorced woman commits adultery” (Matthew 5:32).
  • Does this teaching apply if a woman divorces her husband? Yes (Mark 10:12).

Mark Dunagan | mdunagan@frontier.net
Beaverton Church of Christ | 503-644-9017
www.beavertonchurchofchrist.net